Is the woman in question considered divorced or annulled, and is it permissible for her to marry another man after her husband agreed to separate without an explicit pronouncement of divorce or annulment, and she subsequently filed for divorce in France?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
First, review the matter with a trusted Islamic center or an imam of a mosque to clarify what occurred, whether it was a divorce () or a khul‘ (dissolution of marriage). It should be noted that a divorce decreed by secular courts is not considered valid Islamically, as explained in no. 123373. One should avoid divorce due to its severe consequences.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/172922
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 172922
- Added here
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy