Back to search
The question

Is the French civil court's ruling of divorce considered enforceable, given that the husband did not divorce his wife Islamically, and that divorce in Islamic Sharia is the right of the man except in specific cases?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

As long as the husband has not divorced his wife, she remains under his marital authority. A divorce issued by a non-Muslim judge is not Islamically valid. If a man divorces his wife Islamically, it is permissible to document the divorce before civil courts. However, in cases of dispute regarding divorce, Islamic centers act in place of the Shar'i judiciary. Resorting to civil courts to terminate a marriage does not result in the termination of the marriage according to . If a woman obtains a civil divorce, she should approach Islamic centers to complete the matter Islamically.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
154552
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy