Is a civil divorce that took place in a foreign court considered legitimate and sufficient, and does it absolve the wife before God, especially since the husband insists on the continuation of the marital relationship despite his declaration of his homosexuality?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband is a homosexual, this is a serious matter because it is the act of the people of Lot, and it has been established in the that openly committing this sin is even more dangerous. There is no good for a woman in remaining with a husband in such a state unless he repents sincerely. If a civil divorce is issued, it must be referred to Islamic centers to complete the matter according to ; because resorting to secular courts alone does not terminate the marriage Islamically.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/188364
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 188364
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy