Does the prohibition of masturbation not take into account the necessity of a wife helping her husband reach climax and avoid the pain of intercourse, and what consultants have affirmed that a wife does not reach climax without this help?

It was previously explained that masturbation is Islamically forbidden, and that deriving its prohibition from the verse, "But whoever seeks beyond that, then those are the transgressors" is correct, and Malik and Al-Shafi'i used it as evidence. Necessity has its own ruling, and some scholars permitted it out of necessity, such as fear of committing adultery. However, the pain of intercourse cannot be avoided through masturbation. There are many ways to achieve pleasure, including foreplay. If the intention is foreplay with the hand before intercourse, then why should it not be with the husband's hand? Enjoying the husband's body is permissible, even if it leads to masturbation.