Does a divorce occur with the husband's saying to his wife, "I will not speak to you again," if he did not intend divorce, and he informed his wife of that at the time he uttered it?

You are not required to divorce by what you have uttered, even if you intended divorce, according to the majority of scholars, in contrast to the Malikis. In general, divorce does not occur when there is doubt about the intention if the wording is not explicit, because the basic principle is the continuity of the marriage bond.