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The question

Does a divorce that occurs in a فساد marriage not count, meaning there are only two divorces, and a رجعة is possible with a new contract and dowry? And does the second divorce that occurred under duress not count, meaning it is only one divorce? Or has the wife become forbidden to the husband until she marries another man in an ongoing marriage?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The preponderant opinion among us is that divorce occurs in a voidable marriage, the validity of which is disputed, such as a marriage without a guardian (wali). For duress to be considered, which would prevent the enforceability of divorce, it has conditions: the coercer must have authority or dominance, the coerced must strongly believe that the threat will be carried out if they do not comply, while being unable to repel or escape it, and the harm inflicted must be significant, such as killing or severe beating. Since the situation mentioned in the question is not considered a case of valid duress, the three divorces have occurred, and the woman is irrevocably divorced (baynunah kubra). She is not permissible for the man unless she marries another man willingly, consummates the marriage, and then he divorces her or dies, and her waiting period () expires.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
147496
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy