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The question

Does a husband's divorce take effect if he utters explicit or allusive words of divorce, considering that they believe divorce does not take effect unless the civil contract is annulled?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce takes effect by uttering its explicit words, according to the majority of scholars. It does not require the intention of effecting divorce, nor knowledge of its legal ruling. Ignorance of its occurrence or the intention of joking does not prevent its validity; as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "There are three matters whose seriousness is serious and whose jest is serious: marriage, divorce, and رجعة (returning to one's wife after a revocable divorce)."

A deviant opinion, which states that explicit divorce does not take effect except with intention, has differed on this, but it is weak. The same applies to laws that contradict Islamic law by stipulating the annulment of a civil contract for divorce to occur.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
139774
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy