Does a wife get divorced if she does something that the husband stipulated before the marriage contract would result in divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Divorce does not occur through an action by the wife if the husband conditioned her divorce on this action before marriage, because divorce is not valid except from the husband who possesses the marital bond. Ibn Qudamah said: "It is not valid to condition divorce before marriage," based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "There is no divorce concerning what one does not possess."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/181761
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 181761
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy