Back to search
The question

Does divorce take effect upon the wife if she does something her husband forbade her from doing, with the intention of warning her and not divorcing her, and in a moment of anger?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed regarding one who conditions divorce upon an event, and the event occurs, such as a man saying to his wife: "If you do such-and-such, you are divorced." The majority of scholars hold that the divorce occurs if the condition is met. Others, however, elaborate: if his intention was to prevent her (from doing something) and he did not intend divorce, then she is not divorced, and he must offer an expiation for an oath (kaffarat ) if the condition is met. But if he intended divorce, then the divorce occurs when the condition is met. It is advised not to link marriage with such matters, and to resort to other means to achieve the desired outcome.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
32602
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy