Back to search
The question

Is a husband's taking back of his wife valid merely by holding and touching her without intercourse, or is intercourse required to take her back after the second divorce?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Reconciliation (raj'ah) is achieved either verbally or by action. Verbal reconciliation occurs through an explicit statement, such as "I have reconciled with my wife," or through writing or a gesture. As for action, it is through sexual intercourse, provided there is the intention to reconcile. Mere touching with desire does not constitute reconciliation unless the husband intends reconciliation by it, which is the view of the majority of jurists. The waiting period (') for a woman who has been revocably divorced ( raj'i) is three menstrual cycles. If the husband does not reconcile with his wife during the 'iddah, she becomes irrevocably separated from him, and she is not permissible for him again except through a new contract and dowry, with her consent and that of her guardian.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
12714
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy