Is a man sinful if he divorces his second wife to appease his first wife, who demanded the divorce because she did not accept his marriage to another, and is the first wife entitled to demand a divorce in this situation given her feeling of injustice?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
You bear no sin for divorcing your second wife for the reason mentioned. Divorce, when there is a need for it, is permissible. Your marriage to the second wife in the manner described does not constitute injustice to your first wife, nor is it a harm that permits her to seek divorce. However, if she cannot tolerate remaining with you after your marriage to the second wife, then she has the right to seek khul' from you.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/168786
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 168786
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy