Is a man's marriage to a woman with whom he had an illicit relationship before marriage, and who was previously married to another man (thayyib), Islamically valid, given that the husband is aware of this and did not inform the shaykh of her situation?
If the relationship before the marriage contract did not reach the point of fornication (zina), then it does not affect the validity of the marriage. However, if fornication occurred, and then he married her after her repentance, the marriage is valid, and the omission of mentioning her repentance does not harm it. If he married her before her repentance, there is a difference of opinion regarding the validity of the marriage, but the child is attributed to him. Due to the corruptions that result from annulling a marriage after consummation, there is no harm in acting upon the opinion of those who validate such a marriage. Both spouses must repent and conceal their sin.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/133059
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 133059
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy