Is it permissible for a husband and wife to agree to marriage without intimate relations after the marriage, if the husband does not object due to his old age?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the spouses agree to abstain from intercourse without stipulating it in the contract, there is no harm upon them, because it is a right that each of them has relinquished by their own consent. However, if this is stipulated in the contract, scholars have differed regarding the validity of the marriage. Some of them invalidated the contract because the condition contradicts the essence of the contract, while others invalidated the condition but affirmed the marriage contract.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/173553
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 173553
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy