Is it permissible for a woman to stipulate to her husband that he not approach her?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
It is not permissible to stipulate abstinence from intercourse in the marriage contract because the condition contradicts the purpose of the contract. Scholars have differed regarding whether this condition invalidates the contract. Some have said that both the condition and the contract are invalidated, while others have said that the condition is invalid but the contract remains valid, and this latter opinion is the more preponderant one.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/42019
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 42019
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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