Is it permissible for a marriage to continue without sexual intimacy if the husband is afflicted with paraplegia that prevents him from it, and is the wife entitled to seek divorce due to her need for intimacy after two years of patience?

This marriage is valid if it fulfills its conditions and pillars, and impotence does not invalidate it. If the impotence existed since consummation and you were unaware of it at the time of the contract, you have the right to demand treatment, and if it is ineffective, you have the option to annul the marriage or remain in it. However, if you were aware of his impotence at the time of the contract, you do not have the right to annulment, but you may request a divorce or khul' (dissolution of marriage at the wife's request) to avert harm.