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The question

Is it permissible for the groom to speak with the bride's father before the marriage contract to inform him of his desire for lawful seclusion with his wife after the contract, while pledging not to consummate the marriage until after the wedding night, and is this action correct or incorrect?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

We do not advise informing the wife's father of the desire for seclusion with her. After the marriage contract, the wife becomes lawful for her husband. However, customs and traditions must be observed, meaning full consummation should not occur until the marriage is publicly announced, and the feelings of the wife's family should be considered. If you are prevented from your right after the contract, then you may clarify the religious ruling to him, while still observing customs. There is no need to initiate a conversation with him now, as that would be rushing a trial. It should be noted that the wife has the right to withhold herself until the prompt dowry is paid.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
92691
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy