Is the first marriage contract considered void, knowing that it was concluded without the questioner performing the Istikhara prayer, and two months after the wife became pregnant, and based on a foreign marriage contract without witnesses? And is the second contract valid after rectifying the void clauses, given the wife's refusal to accompany the questioner to his country?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Your action of renewing the contract is correct due to the invalidity of the first one. The girl is not to be attributed to you, as she is a product of zina (fornication/adultery); rather, she is attributed to her mother. You must offer sincere repentance to Allah and increase in righteous deeds.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/89331
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 89331
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy