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The question

Is the marriage considered void if I swore that I would seek a divorce from my fiancé if I did something, then I did that thing and did not expiate my oath, and is it permissible for me to expiate this oath at any time, even if it is after the marriage?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the sister uttered an oath regarding a matter, then followed it by saying that she would not accept such-and-such if such-and-such was done, then she is considered to have sworn an oath, and the breaking of the oath depends on her if her oath was binding. If she breaks it, then expiation is due upon her. Fulfilling the oath may be obligatory if the oath was to abandon something forbidden or to perform something obligatory. As for conditioning the non-acceptance of a suitor or requesting a divorce from him if he does something, nothing is entailed by it, and it does not prevent the performance of the permissible act.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
71790
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy