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The question

Is the marriage of a man to a woman with whom he committed adultery before the marriage contract, and who became pregnant by him, void, and must he divorce her and disown their son from her?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Marriage to an adulteress is not permissible unless she has purified herself (undergone istibra') and repented. The child of adultery is not attributed to the adulterer according to the majority of scholars. However, some scholars permit the attribution of the child of adultery to the adulterer if the woman was not legally married to another man (i.e., not considered another's "bed"). If a man marries the woman and attributes the child to himself, there is no objection to acting upon the opinion of those who validate this marriage and lineage, in consideration of the harms that would result from nullifying it.

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Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
185674
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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