Is the phrase, "You are not my wife, nor am I your husband," spoken as a threat without the intention of divorce, considered an explicit divorce, an implicit divorce, or neither, given that there was a legal seclusion (khalwa shar'iyya) between the spouses without consummation?

A man's statement to his wife: "You are not my wife, and I am not your husband," is a kinayah (ambiguous divorce pronouncement) that can imply divorce or something else. Therefore, divorce does not occur by it unless there is an intention [to divorce]. If he did not intend divorce by it, then divorce does not occur. Similarly, if he doubts his intention, the fundamental principle is the continuation of the marriage.