Is the wife sinful or blameworthy for not pleasing her husband if she refrains from showing him something of her body after the legitimate marriage contract, without reasons or pretexts?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
According to Islamic law, the woman who has had her marriage contract (aqd) solemnized is considered a wife, and it is permissible for the husband to enjoy her. However, she has the right to refuse until she receives her mahr, or the portion of it that is due immediately. The wife may also refuse intimacy out of consideration for prevailing customs and traditions, and for fear of embarrassment. In such cases, she is not sinful for refusing due to these valid concerns. It is advisable to expedite the wedding ceremony to fulfill the objectives of marriage and to enable both spouses to maintain chastity with each other.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/181650
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 181650
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy