What is the ruling on a husband impregnating his wife if he takes her back after the expiration of her waiting period following a revocable divorce, and has intercourse with her without a new marriage contract?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The pregnancy is attributed to the man in all cases because it is intercourse under misconception (waty bi ) to which lineage is affixed, whether the intercourse occurred before or after the renewal of the contract. Muslims have agreed that for any marriage a husband believes to be permissible, his child is attributed to him and they inherit from each other, even if the marriage was originally invalid.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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