Does divorce occur with the statement: "By divorce, this computer will no longer work" if the intention was to prevent the wife from watching TV series on it, and then the computer was used later?
Scholars have differed concerning the ruling on swearing by divorce and making it conditional. The majority of scholars hold that divorce occurs absolutely upon breaching such an oath, and this is the given. However, Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the view that if swearing by divorce is intended for emphasis, prevention, or incitement, then expiation for an oath (kaffarat ) becomes obligatory upon breaching it, and divorce does not occur.
Therefore, the fatwa given is that divorce has occurred in this case, and you must reconcile with your wife before the ' (waiting period) expires, provided this divorce does not complete the three divorces. However, if by the wording you merely intended to swear by divorce, then it appears that no divorce occurs and no expiation is required, because it is a void oath.
It is obligatory to prevent the wife from watching TV series that contain شرعي (-违规) violations. She must also obey her husband in what is good and permissible, and he has the right to discipline her by admonition, then by boycotting her in bed, then by light, non-injurious beating if she disobeys.
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