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The question

Is breaking an oath of divorce by preventing one's wife from going to work, then later allowing her to return, and feeding ten needy people, sufficient expiation for the oath, and does it result in a divorce?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The majority of scholars hold that swearing an oath by divorce causes the divorce to occur if the swearer breaks the oath, whether he intended to cause the divorce or merely to threaten. This is the . Whereas, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the opinion that swearing an oath by divorce with the intention of emphasis or threat does not cause the divorce to occur when the oath is broken; rather, the swearer must pay expiation for an oath. The criterion in oaths is the intention of the swearer. So, if you intended to prevent your wife from going to work absolutely, or for a period exceeding a week, and you broke the oath, divorce occurs or you owe an expiation for an oath according to Ibn Taymiyyah’s view. However, if you intended to prevent her for a short period, like a day or two, and she did not go until after the period expired, then you have fulfilled your oath and divorce does not occur, nor do you owe an expiation for an oath according to Ibn Taymiyyah’s view. It should be noted that the lawful oath is swearing by Allah Almighty, and swearing by divorce is among the oaths of the wicked and has severe consequences.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
150090
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy