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The question

Does sin befall the wife who complied with her husband for intercourse during the daytime in Ramadan while it was in the last ten days, or does sin befall the husband alone?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband coerces his wife into sexual intercourse, she is not required to make up the fast (qada') nor offer expiation (). However, if the woman does not fully resist—for instance, if she responds to her husband out of fear of angering him, or to stop his insistence, or because she is unable to resist her own desire—then she is not considered coerced, but rather compliant. In this case, she must repent, make up the fast, and offer expiation.

A woman must completely abstain from sexual intercourse during the daytime in if she is fasting. If she complies with her husband despite her reluctance, she is not considered coerced. Rather, she must refuse him completely, unless the coercion is forceful and she has no means to resist it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
14479
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy