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The question

What is the ruling on a husband embracing his wife with desire but without intercourse after the first 'tahallul' and before the second 'tahallul' during Hajj, and is there a sin incurred if the wife was unaware and the husband was in doubt?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on foreplay with desire after the first tahallul (partial desacralization). The majority of them prohibited it, while some permitted it. Most Shafi'is hold that it is not permissible except after both tahalluls, while what is well-known from the author and Al-Ruyani is its permissibility after the first tahallul. According to the opinion of the majority, which is the most cautious and absolves one's responsibility, foreplay with desire after the first tahallul necessitates a (expiation), which is one of the following options: fasting for three days, or feeding six poor persons, or sacrificing a sheep.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
150909
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy