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The question

Is it permissible for a woman who has been verbally divorced to marry in accordance with Sharia before the completion of civil procedures that require one year to pass since the divorce?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband divorces his wife verbally and her ' (waiting period) expires, she becomes irrevocably separated from him and is considered a stranger to him. She is then permitted to marry someone else. However, if the law does not recognize divorce until after one year, then marriage would expose her to legal accountability, and a Muslim should not put himself in such a difficult situation. This is one of the disadvantages of residing in non-Muslim lands, and it is more proper for a Muslim to reside in a Muslim country. Indeed, emigration may become obligatory for one who fears trials concerning his religion.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
138949
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy