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The question

Is the verbal consent of the family and the wife sufficient to complete the marriage to a non-Christian, non-Arab woman who has been previously married, knowing that they do not require official documents except in the presence of children? If it is not sufficient, what are the steps that must be followed to complete the marriage in the absence of official documents?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is permissible for a Muslim man to marry a Muslim woman or a chaste Christian or Jewish woman (from the People of the Book). It is forbidden for him to marry a non-Scriptural disbelieving woman, based on the Almighty's saying: "And do not marry polytheistic women until they believe," and His saying: "And [lawful in marriage are] the chaste women from among the believers and the chaste women from among those who were given the Scripture before you."

Among the conditions for the validity of marriage are the presence of a guardian (wali) and witnesses. Documenting the marriage in writing is not a condition for its validity, but it is important for safeguarding rights.

The guardian or his representative from the wife's religious community must be present. Representation by phone is permissible. While marriage to a chaste woman from the People of the Book is permissible, it is not without religious caveats, and for this reason, some scholars disliked it. It is preferable for a Muslim man to marry a righteous Muslim woman.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
170994
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy