Is the husband sinful if he does not proceed with in-vitro fertilization (IVF) after two and a half years of marriage without conceiving, believing that this is a form of inequality in sustenance, and is this considered a dereliction of his duty to himself and his wife and a neglect of medical treatment?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
You bear no sin for foregoing the operation. In fact, it might be better if you can endure God's decree and be content with His judgment, for there is a great reward in patiently bearing the deprivation of offspring. Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on seeking medical treatment.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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