Is it forbidden to use or trade in sugar if its harm to health has been proven, and likewise for milk and chemical leavening agents?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The fundamental principle concerning the aforementioned foods is permissibility. They are not to be deemed unlawful unless their harm is established by specialists, and their harm is either absolute or outweighs their benefit.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/181707
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