What is the ruling on a husband buying his wife's land at a price lower than the market value, with the intention of immediately selling it to another person at a higher price to achieve profit for himself, exploiting his wife's need to sell, and does the ruling differ if he had previously done so with another property?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
What the husband did is not consistent with advice, which is an essential part of the religion. He should have guided his wife to sell the land at a higher price. Nevertheless, the sale is valid as long as the wife was aware of the prices and was not subjected to deception or coercion.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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