Does a husband become forbidden to his wife if he refuses to transfer ownership of a piece of land to her name, then sells it and gives her its full price?
First: (a form of divorce by similitude) is pronounced by the husband, not the wife. A wife's prohibition of herself to her husband is treated like an oath, and she is required to pay an expiation for breaking an oath if she violates it.
Second: If your intention was to secure your right by transferring ownership or receiving the price, then nothing is required of you. However, if your intention was specifically to transfer ownership, and that did not occur, but you received the land's price, then an expiation for breaking an oath is required of you. This expiation is feeding ten poor people, or clothing them, or freeing a slave. If one cannot find these, then fasting for three days.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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