If a husband swears an oath of divorce that he will not lend money to anyone, what is the ruling on that?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband swears an oath of divorce, he is bound by what he swore if he breaks the oath. This is considered a conditional divorce. If the husband swears an oath not to pay a debt to someone, and then pays him, he has broken his oath, and the divorce takes place, according to the majority of scholars. Ibn Taymiyyah held that if the intention was merely to deter, then a kaffarat (expiation for breaking an oath) is due upon breaking the oath, but the view of the majority is more preponderant.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/89044
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 89044
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy