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The question

Is the prayer considered valid if one performed istinja' (ablution) initially and offered the prayer, then found impurity after the prayer?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It appears that the questioner, who suffers from waswasah (obsessive whispering), finds wetness after relieving himself. The remedy for this is to sprinkle water on the private parts or clothing after istibra' (ensuring no urine drops remain) to cut off the waswasah. These narrations indicate that a person is not required to follow delusions and waswasah. If wetness is found and one is not certain that it is an impurity, it should be disregarded, and the prayer is valid. However, if the presence of urine or faecal impurity is confirmed after ' (cleansing after defecation/urination) and before prayer, then it must be washed, and ablution performed.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
128654
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy