To what extent is the statement valid regarding the ritual purity of madhy (pre-seminal fluid), based on it being a genital discharge rather than urine, and by analogy with the ritual purity of maniy (semen), considering that some scholars deem it a part of maniy, while also taking into account the jurisprudential views that did not consider it impure, and the prophetic traditions that indicate sufficiency with ablution (wudu’) and washing the penis from it?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
"The disagreement regarding the ruling on (pre-seminal fluid) is well-established, and anyone claiming a consensus (ijma') on its impurity might be referring to the agreement of the majority on this matter. As for preferring its purity, that is not accepted. The حسن () mentioned by the questioner is sufficient evidence for its impurity, as it explicitly states the need to sprinkle water on whatever it touches."
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/58301
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 58301
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy