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The question

Why is a dog's saliva impure while its fur is not? And what is the view of the four madhhabs on this, along with the evidence?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The preponderant view is that of the majority, which holds that a dog is impure in all its parts. Therefore, if a garment, body, or place is touched by its saliva or wet body, it must be purified. They based their argument on the : "If a dog licks the vessel of one of you, he should spill it and then wash it seven times," and "The purification of the vessel of one of you, if a dog licks it, is to wash it seven times, the first with earth." This hadith indicates impurity because the word "purification" (ṭahūr) is used for either ritual impurity (ḥadath) or physical impurity (khabath). Since there is no ritual impurity on a vessel, physical impurity is thereby confirmed.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
32358
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy