Does blood become incumbent upon the husband for saying to his wife, "You like men's private parts from this country," after the major tahallul and before the farewell tawaf, and during the days of Tashreeq? And is this considered rafath that necessitates blood?

This man is not obligated to do anything, as everything became permissible for him after his second release from ihram (definition). The hadith (definition) that includes mention of rafath (obscene talk) does not necessitate a fidyah (definition) (expiation), even if it occurred before release from ihram. However, a Muslim should keep his state of ihram free from cursing, foul language, and speaking to women about intercourse, based on the words of the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him: "Whoever believes in Allah and the Last Day, let him speak good or remain silent."