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The question

Is it true that Moses (peace be upon him) asked his Lord to save him from people's tongues, and that Allah replied that he was asking for something He had not made for Himself?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

This narration has not been found with a reliable chain of transmission; rather, it appears in books of soft admonition and sermons without a chain of transmission. Its meaning is not deniable, for Allah, the Almighty, did not attribute to Himself that none of His creation could transgress against Him. Instead, He informed us about peoples who fell short in their duty to Him and did not estimate Allah with His true estimation. It has been reported that "No one is more patient with harm he hears than Allah; they claim He has a son, yet He grants them well-being and provides for them." The benefit of this is that the criticism of enviers and the slander of malicious people should not cause a Muslim to slacken, and that one should remember that Allah, the angels, and the messengers were not safe from insults and harm.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
7185
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy