Is it true to say that disbelieving in analogy (qiyas) and ijtihad (independent reasoning), and [claiming] that drugs were not explicitly forbidden in Islam, and that we do not know whether they are haram (forbidden), makruh (disliked), or have another ruling, and [claiming] that Islam forbade drugs but the Prophet did not say so—is this true?

Drugs are forbidden due to the harm, corruption, and evil they contain. This is indicated by the general Hadith (definition): "There should be no harm nor reciprocating harm," and by His — the Almighty’s — saying: "and makes lawful for them the good things and prohibits for them the evil things," and by the general authentic Hadiths that prohibit every intoxicant and every substance that causes languor, as well as by the jurisprudential principle: "The origin of everything that causes harm is prohibition."