Does a divorce take effect if the husband says, "You are divorced if you prevent me from cutting this cloth," and then he completes cutting it later? And is the time, in terms of menstruation and purity, taken into account when calculating the occurrence of the divorce?

If the husband intended, by his oath, to cut the entire garment, and the wife did not prevent him from doing so at all, and let him cut it completely, then no divorce occurs. However, if he intended to cut it all, and she did not prevent him or show any resistance, then prevented him, and then left him to do it, then a divorce occurs. Menstruation does not prevent the occurrence of divorce according to the majority of scholars. Therefore, the decisive factor is the husband's intention behind his oath.