Is the husband considered sinful if he divorces his wife after three years of marriage due to the abundance of problems between them, his discomfort with her, and his discovery that she obtained a medical certificate proving her virginity a year before the marriage, and is this divorce legitimate?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The fundamental principle regarding divorce is its permissibility. It is disliked if there is no need for it, but it becomes permissible when there is a need, such as due to the wife's bad character or if the marital purpose is not achieved. Divorce is considered lawful (Shar'i) if it occurs during a period of purity (Tuhr) in which intercourse did not take place, or if she is pregnant. Divorce is considered an innovation (Bid'i) and forbidden if it occurs during menstruation, post-natal bleeding (), or during a period of purity in which intercourse took place and her pregnancy is not yet apparent.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/66904
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 66904
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy