Does divorce occur during pregnancy, or does it take the ruling of a divorce pronounced during a period of purity in which she was[^1] intimate with him? And how can the number of divorces be calculated if the divorcer does not know their number? [^1]: This is a more accurate translation of the Arabic phrase "جامعها فيه," which implies intimacy rather than just "cohabited with him."

Divorcing a pregnant woman is valid and is not considered a Bid'ah divorce (innovative divorce). It can be a revocable (raj'i) or irrevocable (ba'in) divorce, according to the consensus of jurists. If a man divorces his wife and then doubts the number of divorces he has issued, he should base it on the minimum certain number, because any number exceeding what is certain is a doubtful divorce, and therefore not binding upon him.