Is a divorce pronounced by a husband in a state of extreme anger, while he was hitting his wife, and without intending divorce, valid, given that the divorce occurred during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, and her pregnancy was not yet apparent?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The divorce pronounced by a husband upon his wife during a period of purity (ṭuhr) in which he had intercourse with her is a matter of scholarly disagreement regarding its validity. The majority of scholars hold that it is valid, though sinful. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and some other scholars maintain that it is not valid. A judge's ruling that the divorce is invalid resolves the dispute. Therefore, the divorce is not valid. The wife must dispel any obsessive thoughts related to this by ignoring them, seeking refuge in Allah, engaging in remembrance (), and reciting the Quran.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/92351
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 92351
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- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy