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The question

Did all the divorces pronounced by the husband take effect, or did some of them not, especially those spoken between him and his Lord without the wife's knowledge, and those that occurred during the menstrual period?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband pronounces divorce, saying: "My wife is divorced," then the divorce takes effect and counts as one divorce, even if it was in private and he did not inform anyone, based on the saying of the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him: "There are three matters whose seriousness is serious and whose jesting is serious: divorce, emancipation, and رجعة (taking back a divorced wife)." The occurrence of divorce is not prevented by its coinciding with the beginning of menstruation according to the majority of scholars. Since the husband divorced his wife three times, she has become irrevocably divorced from him (baynunah kubra), and she is not lawful for him until she marries another man.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
78412
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy