Does a husband's thrice-issued divorce to his wife count if it occurred during her menstrual period and during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, taking into consideration Sheikh Ibn Baz's fatwa that such a divorce does not count?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The we adopt states that a man's divorce of his wife during menstruation, or during a period of purity in which he has had intercourse with her, is valid despite being an innovation (bid'ah) and forbidden. This is the view of the majority of scholars, contrary to Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him. There is no blame on someone who acts upon one of the differing opinions in matters of disagreement, as long as they are confident in its correctness and are not merely following their whims.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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