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The question

Does the commission I receive from directing customers to goods not available in the store belong to me or to the store where I work, given the absence of a prior agreement with the store owners regarding this matter?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A private employee is entitled to the wage upon making himself available for the duration, even if he does not work. It is not permissible for him to work for anyone other than his employer during working hours except with his permission. If he does so without permission, he commits a sin. Scholars differed regarding his full entitlement to the wage. Some ruled that he must compensate the employer for any harm caused by the employee's preoccupation.

The aforementioned difference of opinion applies if the employee performs work for someone else. However, if the worker merely answers a customer's question about an item not available in the store and directs him to where it can be found, and this does not take time that affects his work, then there is no harm in it, and he is entitled to the commission he receives.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
113793
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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