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The question

Is the price of the tickets that the questioner received from the company, but did not use for travel, considered his right or the company's right?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the employment contract or its regulations stipulate that the employee receives an airline ticket after two years, whether they travel or not, then the tickets are the property of the employee, and they are permitted to sell them and take their price.

However, if the employee is not entitled to the tickets unless they actually travel, then they are not permitted to take the price of the tickets for themselves; rather, it must be returned to the company.

In the case where the price must be returned to the company, the employee is permitted to take an amount equivalent to their established rights with the company, such as salaries or end-of-service benefits that they were unable to obtain. This is known as the issue of al-Zafar (taking one's right by force), provided that the right is firmly established with certainty, there is no ability to obtain it through legitimate means, and there is safety from scandal and punishment. This is the view held by al-Bukhari and Ibn Sirin.

If the company paid the employee the price of the tickets and knew that they did not travel and did not demand the price back, then this means the company willingly relinquished this amount to them. This might be in exchange for vacation days.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
19136
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy