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The question

Is it permissible for a father to fictitiously divorce the mother in court without the intention of divorce, in order to obtain government facilities and a loan to build a house, given that they have a large family and the goal is to improve living conditions?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Divorce was legislated by Allah to dissolve the marriage covenant, and no one should use it except seriously, because the Lawgiver prohibited taking the signs of Allah in jest. And whoever utters it without intending its legal implications, then it is not permissible for your father to feign divorce to defraud the state and unjustly consume wealth. If the divorce occurs by explicit verbal pronouncement, it takes effect even if the utterer did not intend its occurrence. As for written divorce in court, some scholars hold that it takes effect even if not intended. If your father is unable to provide sustenance and truly desires a divorce for the wife and children to benefit from facilities, then he is allowed to do so, while observing the rulings that follow therefrom. However, it is advisable to seek another means of earning and providing sustenance.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
9918
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy