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The question

Does Zakat become obligatory upon the employee who receives his wages from the product, if the owner of the product refrains from paying Zakat, even though the ownership does not belong to the employee?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is permissible to take a portion of the crop or fruit as a wage according to the Hanbali school of thought. However, it is more cautious for the wage to be clearly defined. The hired worker is not obligated to pay on what he receives as a wage because it was not his property at the time of the fruit's ripeness. If the contract is a Musaqah (where the worker tends to the trees in exchange for a share of the fruit), then Musaqah is permissible, and the worker is obligated to pay Zakat if his share reaches the . As for the owner of the fruit, he must pay Zakat on his share if it reaches the Nisab. The worker must advise the owner and explain the gravity of withholding Zakat. It is not permissible for the worker to dispose of the owner's money or to pay Zakat without the owner's permission and knowledge.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
112522
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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