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The question

Is Zakat obligatory on barley and the like that its owner cultivates but then cannot harvest, so he pastures animals in it? And what is the ruling of Sharia on this action?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

is obligatory on barley when its goodness appears and it reaches the . If the barley is fed to animals after its goodness appears, Zakat becomes obligatory on its owner. If the تلف (destruction or spoilage) occurs after the kharṣ (estimation) and taḍmīn (guaranteeing the value), then Zakat is a debt owed by the owner, and he must guarantee the amount due to the poor by purchasing an equivalent amount and giving it to them. If the تلف occurs before the kharṣ and taḍmīn, he must guarantee the value of the obligatory amount. However, if the feeding was before the goodness appeared and with the intention of evading Zakat, then according to the Hanbalis, he must guarantee it, but according to the Shafi'is, he does not. The owner must know the nisab amount and the obligatory amount by consulting experts and then pay the barley itself or its value. If the barley is irrigated by rain, one-tenth is obligatory. If it is irrigated with effort (and cost), then half of one-tenth is obligatory. There is no harm in feeding barley as fodder to animals.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
89655
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